The ultimate goal of engaging with NCLEX RN Practice Questions is to solidify nursing competence, pass the licensure exam, and embark on a successful nursing career.
NCLEX All Other Drugs/Nursing Interventions Questions
All Other Drugs/Nursing Interventions NCLEX Practice Questions
Question 1.
Mrs. Jones is a 65-year-old female who has recently been diagnosed with hypertension. Her medical history includes type 2 diabetes and hyperlipidemia. She has been prescribed a combination drug therapy for her hypertension, which includes a calcium channel blocker and an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. Mrs. Jones has been experiencing mild dizziness and headache since starting the medication therapy. She reports that she has not missed any doses and has been taking the medication as prescribed.
1. What is the mechanism of action of the calcium channel blocker and the ACE inhibitor?
(a) The calcium channel blocker blocks the effects of adrenaline, while the ACE inhibitor increases blood pressure.
(b) The calcium channel blocker blocks the effects of adrenaline, while the ACE inhibitor blocks the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system, which decreases blood pressure.
(c) The calcium channel blocker blocks the renin-angiotensin- aldosterone system, which decreases blood pressure, while the ACE inhibitor blocks the effects of adrenaline.
(d) The calcium channel blocker blocks the renin-angiotensin- aldosterone system, which decreases blood pressure, while the ACE inhibitor blocks angiotensin II, which also decreases blood pressure.
Answer:
(d) The calcium channel blocker blocks the renin-angiotensin- aldosterone system, which decreases blood pressure, while the ACE inhibitor blocks angiotensin II, which also decreases blood pressure.
Explanation:
Calcium channel blockers block calcium entry into cardiac muscle cells and smooth muscle cells of the arterioles, leading to vasodilation and decreased blood pressure. ACE inhibitors block the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, a potent vasoconstrictor, leading to vasodilation and decreased blood pressure.
Question 2.
Which patient-specific factors should be considered when administering medication therapy for hypertension?
(a) Patient's weight and medical history
(b) Patient's age and medical history
(c) Patient's weight, medical history, and other relevant factors
(d) Patient's age, medical history, and other relevant factors
Answer:
(c) Patient's weight, medical history, and other relevant factors
Explanation:
When administering medications, it is important to consider patient-specific factors such as age. weight, medical history, and other relevant factors. For example, in Mrs. Jones' case, her medical history of diabetes and hyperlipidemia may impact her medication therapy for hypertension.
Question 3:
Match the drug mechanism of action to the appropriate medication class:
- Calcium channel blockers (c) Block calcium entry into cardiac muscle cells and smooth muscle cells of the arterioles, leading to vasodilation and decreased blood pressure.
- Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors (b) Block the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system, which decreases blood pressure
- Beta-blockers (a) Block the effects of adrenaline
Answer:
- Calcium channel blockers - (c) Block calcium entry into cardiac muscle cells and smooth muscle cells of the arterioles, leading to vasodilation and decreased blood pressure
- Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors - (b) Block the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system, which decreases blood pressure
- Beta-blockers - (a) Block the effects of adrenaline
Question 4.
A 68-year-old male patient presents to the emergency department with complaints of chest pain. After performing an electrocardiogram (ECG), the physician diagnoses the patient with acute myocardial infarction (AMI). The patient is started on aspirin and heparin and is scheduled to undergo percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) within the next few hours.
The nurse responsible for the patient's care should:
(a) Administer an additional dose of aspirin
(b) Administer an additional dose of heparin
(c) Review the patient's medical history for potential contraindications to the medications
(d) Administer a medication to relieve the patient's pain
Answer:
(c) Review the patient's medical history for potential contraindications to the medications
Explanation:
In this case, the nurse should review the patient's medical history to identify any potential contraindications to the medications that have been prescribed, including aspirin and heparin. Patients with a history of gastrointestinal bleeding or allergy to aspirin should not receive aspirin, and patients with a history of heparin-induced thrombocytopenia should not receive heparin. The nurse should also assess the patient for any potential adverse effects of the medications and monitor the patient's response to the treatment.
(a) Administering an additional dose of aspirin is incorrect because the patient has already been started on aspirin, and administering an additional dose without reviewing the patient's medical history could be harmful if there are any contraindications to aspirin.
(b) Administering an additional dose of heparin is incorrect because the patient has already been started on heparin, and administering an additional dose without reviewing the patient's medical history could be harmful if there are any contraindications to heparin.
(d) Administer a medication to relieve the patient's pain is incorrect because the patient is already receiving medications for the treatment of AMI, and pain relief should not be the nurse's priority in this case. The nurse should focus on ensuring that the patient is receiving appropriate medications and monitoring the patient for potential adverse effects of the treatment.
Question 5.
A 45-year-old patient presents to the emergency department with symptoms of chest pain and shortness of breath. The patient's medical history includes hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and type 2 diabetes. The healthcare provider orders several medications for the patient, including a beta-blocker, a statin, and an ACE inhibitor.
What is the rationale for administering a beta-blocker to a patient with hypertension and chest pain?
(a) Beta-blockers increase heart rate and blood pressure
(b) Beta-blockers decrease heart rate and blood pressure
(c) Beta-blockers increase insulin sensitivity
(d) Beta-blockers reduce blood glucose levels
Answer:
(b) Beta-blockers decrease heart rate and blood pressure.
Explanation:
Beta-blockers work by blocking the effects of adrenaline, which reduces heart rate and blood pressure. They are commonly prescribed for patients with hypertension, angina, and heart failure. In this case, the patient has hypertension and is experiencing chest pain, which may be a sign of angina or a heart attack. Administering a beta-blocker can help reduce the patient's heart rate and blood pressure, which can improve blood flow to the heart and reduce the risk of further cardiac events.
Question 6.
A 45-year-old male patient with a history of hypertension presents to the emergency department with complaints of severe chest pain that radiates to his left ami. Upon evaluation, the patient is diagnosed with acute myocardial infarction (heart attack). The physician orders several medications, including nitroglycerin, aspirin, and heparin. As the nurse assigned to this patient, which of the following is the most important factor to consider when administering these medications?
(a) Understanding the drugs’ therapeutic indications
(b) Knowing the drugs’ pharmacokinetics
(c) Recognizing potential adverse effects and contraindications
(d) Considering the patient’s medical history and other relevant factors
Answer:
(c) Recognizing potential adverse effects and contraindications
Explanation:
When administering medications to a patient with acute myocardial infarction, it is crucial to recognize potential adverse effects and contraindications of the drugs being administered. Nitroglycerin is a potent vasodilator that can cause a significant drop in blood pressure and can exacerbate hypotension in patients with underlying cardiovascular disease. Aspirin is an antiplatelet agent that can increase the risk of bleeding, especially in patients with a history of bleeding disorders or those taking anticoagulants such as heparin.
Heparin is an anticoagulant that can also increase the risk of bleeding and should be used with caution in patients with a history of bleeding disorders, recent surgeries, or other contraindications. Therefore, it is important for the nurse to recognize potential adverse effects and contraindications of these medications to avoid further complications in the patient’s condition.
Question 7.
When administering medications to a patient with acute myocardial infarction, which of the following factors is the most important for the nurse to consider?
(a) Understanding the drugs’ therapeutic indications
(b) Knowing the drugs’ pharmacokinetics
(c) Recognizing potential adverse effects and contraindications
(d) Considering the patient’s medical history and other relevant factors
Answer:
(c) Recognizing potential adverse effects and contraindications
Explanation:
When administering medications to a patient with acute myocardial infarction, it is crucial to recognize potential adverse effects and contraindications of the drugs being administered. Nitroglycerin is a potent vasodilator that can cause a significant drop in blood pressure and can exacerbate hypotension in patients with underlying cardiovascular disease. Aspirin is an antiplatelet agent that can increase the risk of bleeding, especially in patients with a history of bleeding disorders or those taking anticoagulants such as heparin.
Heparin is an anticoagulant that can also increase the risk of bleeding and should be used with caution in patients with a history of bleeding disorders, recent surgeries, or other contraindications. Therefore, it is important for the nurse to recognize potential adverse effects and contraindications of these medications to avoid further complications in the patient's condition. Option (a) (b), and (d) are important factors to consider when administering medications to a patient; however, recognizing potential adverse effects and contraindications is the most important factor to consider in this particular case.
Question 7.
Anita is a 50-year-old woman who has recently been diagnosed with hypertension. Her doctor prescribed her a medication called lisinopril, which is an ACE inhibitor used to lower blood pressure. However, after taking the medication for a few days, Anita complains of some uneasiness in her health.
Which side effects could be related to Anita's medication?
(a) Nausea and vomiting
(b) Diarrhea or constipation
(c) Dizziness or lightheadedness
(d) Sedation or drowsiness
(e) Headache
(f) Allergic reactions
(g) Dry mouth
(h) Insomnia
(i) Muscle cramps or tremors
(j) Rash
Answer:
(c) Dizziness or lightheadedness
(g) Dry mouth
(h) Insomnia
Explanation:
(c) Dizziness or lightheadedness is a potential side effect of blood pressure medications, such as ACE inhibitors like lisinopril. This can be due to a drop in blood pressure, which may increase the risk of falls and injuries.
(g) Dry mouth is also a common side effect of some blood pressure medications, including ACE inhibitors. Anita's complaint of dry mouth is consistent with this potential side effect.
(h) Insomnia or difficulty sleeping can also be a side effect of some blood pressure medications, such as ACE inhibitors. This may be due to the medication's effect on the body's systems that regulate sleep. (a), (b), (e), (f), (i), and (j) are not related to Anita's medication or her symptoms.
Question 8.
A 60-year-old male patient with a history of chronic pain due to degenerative disc disease was prescribed a drug for pain management. He has been taking the medication as directed for the past two weeks but reports having difficulty with bowel movements.
He describes his stools as hard and infreQuestionnt, and he has only had one bowel movement in the past five days. He denies any abdominal pain, bloating, or distension. Upon further Questionstioning, he reports having a diet high in protein and low in fiber.
Question 9.
Which medication can cause constipation as a common side effect?
(a) Chemotherapy drugs such as cisplatin
(b) Blood pressure medications such as alpha-blockers
(c) Benzodiazepines such as diazepam
(d) Opioid pain medications such as oxycodone
Answer:
(d) Opioid pain medications such as oxycodone can cause constipation as a common side effect.
Explanation:
Some medications can cause changes in bowel habits, such as diarrhea or constipation. Opioid pain medications, such as oxycodone, can cause constipation as a common side effect. In the given case study, the patient has been prescribed oxycodone for pain management and reports difficulty with bowel movements.
This is consistent with the known side effect of constipation associated with the medication. The other options in the Questionstion, such as chemotherapy drugs, blood pressure medications, and benzodiazepines, are associated with other side effects but not specifically constipation.
Question 10.
Saigrace is a 70-year-old male with a history of hypertension. He was recently started on a new blood pressure medication, amlodipine. After a week of taking the medication, he reported constipation. He had difficulty passing stools and felt bloated. He tried increasing his fiber and fluid intake but did not see any improvement.
Which of the following statements is true regarding Saigrace's condition?
(a) Saigrace's constipation is not related to his medication.
(b) Amlodipine is known to cause constipation as a side effect.
(c) Saigrace needs to stop taking his medication immediately.
(d) Saigrace should increase his amlodipine dosage to relieve his constipation.
Answer:
(b) Amlodipine is known to cause constipation as a side effect.
Explanation:
Option (b) is correct because some medications can cause changes in bowel habits, such as constipation, as a side effect, and amlodipine is one of them. Saigrace's symptoms are consistent with medication-induced constipation, which can occur due to the medication's effect on the digestive system. Options (a), (c), and (d) are incorrect because constipation is a well-known side effect of amlodipine, and Saigrace should not stop taking his medication without consulting his healthcare provider or increase his dosage without medical advice.
Question 11.
.................... is administered through the oral medication administration route?
(a) Nicotine patch
(b) Hydrocortisone cream
(c) Acetaminophen (Tylenol) (Answer)
(d) Albuterol inhaler
Explanation:
Oral medications arc taken by mouth and arc absorbed through the gastrointestinal tract. Examples of oral medications include Acetaminophen (Tylenol), Aspirin, Metformin (Glucophage), and Lisinopril (Zestril).
Question 12.
................... administration route involves the delivery of medication through the skin via a patch?
(a) Intravenous (IV) medication administration
(b) Topical medication administration
(c) Intramuscular (IM) medication administration
(d) Transdermal medication administration (Answer)
Explanation:
Transdermal medications are delivered through the skin via a patch. Examples of transdermal medications include Nicotine patch, Fentanyl patch (Duragesic), and Scopolamine patch (Transderm Scop).
CASE: Mrs. Miranda is a 65-year-old patient who has been diagnosed with hypertension and has been taking Lisinopril (Zestril) for the past six months. She has been complaining of dry cough and dizziness for the past two weeks. Her healthcare provider decided to switch her medication to a different route of administration.
Question 13.
Which medication administration route is most likely to be chosen for Mrs. Miranda?
(a) Oral
(b) Topical
(c) Intravenous
(d) Subcutaneous
Answer:
(b) Topical
Explanation:
Mrs. Miranda has been experiencing adverse effects of the medication through the oral route, which is being absorbed through the gastrointestinal tract. Therefore, the healthcare provider may switch her medication route to a topical route, which involves applying the medication directly to the skin. Examples of topical medications include Lidocaine cream, Hydrocortisone cream, and Clotrimazole cream.
Question 14.
Which medication is administered through the rectal route?
(a) Albuterol inhaler
(b) Vancomycin (Vancocin)
(c) Bisacodyl suppository (Dulcolax)
(d) Fentanyl patch (Duragesic)
Answer:
(c) Bisacodyl suppository (Dulcolax)
Explanation:
Rectal medication administration involves inserting medications into the rectum. Examples of rectal medications include Bisacodyl suppository, Acetaminophen suppository, and Hydrocortisone suppositoiy.
Question 15.
Which medication is administered through the intravenous route?
(a) Albuterol inhaler
(b) Furosemide (Lasix)
(c) Hydrocortisone cream
(d) Insulin
Answer:
(b) Furosemide (Lasix)
Explanation: Intravenous medication administration involves injecting medications directly into a vein. Examples of intravenous medications include Furosemide (Lasix), Dopamine, and Vancomycin (Vancocin).
Question 16.
Which medication is administered through the subcutaneous route?
(a) Enoxaparin (Lovenox)
(b) Lisinopril (Zestril)
(c) Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
(d) Ipratropium inhaler (Atrovent)
Answer:
(a) Enoxaparin (Lovenox)
Explanation:
Subcutaneous medication administration involves injecting medications under the skin. Examples of subcutaneous medications include Insulin, Enoxaparin (Lovenox), and Epinephrine (EpiPen).
Question 17.
Which medication is administered through the transderma I route?
(a) Nicotine patch
(b) Penicillin G benzathine (Bicillin L-A)
(c) Metformin (Glucophage)
(d) Lisinopril (Zestril)
Answer:
(a) Nicotine patch
Explanation:
Transdermal medication administration involves delivering medications through the skin via a patch. Examples of transdermal medications include Nicotine patch, Fentanyl patch (Duragesic), and Scopolamine patch (Transderm Scop).
Question 18.
A 60-year-old patient has been diagnosed with hypertension and is prescribed lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, for its management. However, the patient also experiences edema and is prescribed spironolactone, a potassium-sparing diuretic. After a week of treatment, the patient presents with confusion, muscle weakness, and fatigue. The doctor suspects hyperkalemia and reviews the patient's medication history.
What is the interaction between lisinopril and spironolactone?
(a) Potassium-sparing diuretics can decrease the effectiveness of ACE inhibitors.
(b) ACE inhibitors can decrease the effectiveness of potassium-sparing diuretics.
(c) Potassium-sparing diuretics can increase potassium levels in the blood, leading to hyperkalemia when taken with ACE inhibitors.
(d) ACE inhibitors can cause hypokalemia when taken with potassium-sparing diuretics.
Answer:
(c) Potassium-sparing diuretics can increase potassium levels in the blood, leading to hyperkalemia when taken with ACE inhibitors.
Explanation:
Spironolactone, a potassium-sparing diuretic, can increase potassium levels in the blood. This can be dangerous when taken with ACE inhibitors, like lisinopril, which can also increase potassium levels. Therefore, taking these medications together can result in hyperkalemia, which can cause symptoms like confusion, muscle weakness, and fatigue.
Question 19.
Ms. Miranda is a 70-year-old patient who suffers from hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and osteoarthritis. She is currently taking lisinopril for hypertension, atorvastatin for hypercholesterolemia, and naproxen for osteoarthritis. She has recently developed a urinary tract infection and her healthcare provider prescribed her ciprofloxacin for treatment.
However, the healthcare provider noticed that Ms. Miranda's medication list includes medications that can interact with ciprofloxacin. The healthcare provider decided to adjust Ms. Miranda's medication regimen to prevent potential drug interactions and adverse effects.
Question 20.
What is the potential drug interaction between lisinopril and ciprofloxacin?
(a) Lisinopril can increase the risk of bleeding when taken with ciprofloxacin.
(b) Lisinopril can decrease the effectiveness of ciprofloxacin.
(c) Lisinopril can increase the risk of muscle damage when taken with ciprofloxacin.
(d) Lisinopril can cause electrolyte imbalances when taken with ciprofloxacin.
Answer:
(b) Lisinopril can decrease the effectiveness of ciprofloxacin. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor used to treat hypertension, and it can decrease the effectiveness of ciprofloxacin, an antibiotic used to treat infections.
Question 21.
What is the potential drug interaction between atorvastatin and ciprofloxacin?
(a) Atorvastatin can increase the risk of bleeding when taken with ciprofloxacin.
(b) Atorvastatin can decrease the effectiveness of ciprofloxacin.
(c) Atorvastatin can increase the risk of muscle damage when taken with ciprofloxacin.
(d) Atorvastatin can cause electrolyte imbalances when taken with ciprofloxacin.
Answer:
(c) Atorvastatin can increase the risk of muscle damage when taken with ciprofloxacin. Ciprofloxacin can increase the levels of atorvastatin in the blood, leading to a greater risk of muscle damage.
Question 22.
Which of the following medication combinations can lead to poorly controlled hypertension?
(a) Antacids and tetracyclines
(b) ACE inhibitors and NSAIDs
(c) Beta-blockers and verapamil
(d) Levodopa and pyridoxine
Answer:
(b) ACE inhibitors and NSAIDs. NSAIDs can decrease the effectiveness of ACE inhibitors, leading to poorly controlled hypertension.
Question 23.
Which of the following medication combinations can increase the risk of bleeding when taken together?
(a) Theophylline and ciprofloxacin
(b) Anticoagulants and antiplatelet agents
(c) Beta-blockers and verapamil
(d) Rifampin and oral contraceptives
Answer:
(b) Anticoagulants and antiplatelet agents. Anticoagulants and antiplatelet agents can increase the risk of bleeding when taken together.
Question 24.
Which of the following medication combinations can decrease the effectiveness of levodopa?
(a) Antacids and tetracyclines
(b) Levodopa and pyridoxine
(c) Warfarin and cranberry juice
(d) MAOIs and tyramine-containing foods
Answer:
(b) Levodopa and pyridoxine. Pyridoxine can decrease the effectiveness of levodopa, which is used to treat Parkinson's disease.
Which of the following medication combinations can interact with each other to either increase or decrease effectiveness?
(a) Theophylline and ciprofloxacin
(b) Anticoagulants and antiplatelet agents
(c) Warfarin and cranberry juice
(d) ACE inhibitors and NSAIDs
Answer:
(c) Warfarin and cranberry juice. Cranberry juice can interact with warfarin, either increasing or decreasing its effectiveness.
Question 25.
What is the potential risk of using beta-blockers in patients with asthma?
(a) Exacerbation of asthma symptoms
(b) Liver damage
(c) Bleeding disorders
(d) Increased risk of infections
Answer:
(a) Exacerbation of asthma symptoms
Explanation:
Beta-blockers are contraindicated in patients with asthma as they can exacerbate symptoms.
Question 26.
A 45-year-old female with a history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes, and bipolar disorder presents to her primary care physician with symptoms of a urinary tract infection. The physician prescribes ciprofloxacin for the infection. The patient asks if there are any concerns about the medication interacting with her medical history. Which of the following conditions may be a contraindication for the use of ciprofloxacin?
(a) Immunodeficiency
(b) Gastrointestinal conditions
(c) Diabetes
(d) Renal impairment
Answer:
(d) Renal impairment
Explanation:
Renal impairment can be a contraindication for ciprofloxacin as it can cause kidney damage. Patients with renal impairment should use caution when taking aminoglycoside antibiotics, including ciprofloxacin. Immunodeficiency, gastrointestinal conditions, and diabetes are not specific contraindications for ciprofloxacin.
Question 27.
A 55-year-old male patient visits the clinic complaining of joint pain. He has a history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes, and renal impairment. His current medications include metformin, lisinopril, and amlodipine. The physician prescribes ibuprofen for his joint pain.
What is a potential contraindication for ibuprofen in this patient?
(a) Immunodeficiency
(b) Cardiovascular disease
(c) Renal impairment
(d) Autoimmune disease
Answer:
(c) Renal impairment
Explanation:
Some medications may be contraindicated in patients with renal impairment. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) such as ibuprofen should be used with caution in patients with renal impairment, as they may cause kidney damage.
In this case, the patient has a history of renal impairment and is already taking medications for hypertension and diabetes, which puts him at higher risk for kidney damage. Therefore, ibuprofen should not be prescribed without careful consideration of its potential risks and benefits in this patient. Options (a), (b), and (d) are not relevant in this case.
Question 28.
Mrs. Ranjan, a 62-year-old woman, was diagnosed with atrial fibrillation and prescribed warfarin. She was counseled on the signs and symptoms of bleeding and the importance of monitoring for signs of bleeding. However, after two weeks of taking the medication, she noticed bruising on her arms and legs but didn't report it to her healthcare provider because she thought it was a normal side effect. One day, she fell and suffered a minor head injury, which caused bleeding in her brain. She was rushed to the hospital, where she was diagnosed with a hemorrhagic stroke.
Which of the following is true regarding patients prescribed anticoagulants?
(a) They should be educated on proper insulin administration techniQuestions.
(b) They should be counseled on the possible side effects of the medication.
(c) They should monitor for signs and symptoms of bleeding and report them to their healthcare provider.
(d) They should be educated on the risks of addiction and overdose.
Answer:
(c) They should monitor for signs and symptoms of bleeding and report them to their healthcare provider.
Explanation:
Patients prescribed anticoagulants should be counseled on the signs and symptoms of bleeding and the importance of monitoring for signs of bleeding. For example, patients prescribed warfarin should be instructed to monitor for signs of bruising, bleeding gums, or blood in their urine or stool, and to report any signs of bleeding immediately to their healthcare provider.
Option (a) is incorrect because it pertains to insulin administration, not anticoagulants. Option (b) is incorrect because it refers to counseling on possible side effects, which is more relevant for antidepressants than anticoagulants. Option (d) is incorrect because it pertains to the risks of opioids, not anticoagulants.
Question 29.
Anita, a 55-year-old female with a history of heart failure, is prescribed furosemide by her healthcare provider to manage her symptoms. As her virtual assistant, you are responsible for educating her on the medication and its possible side effects.
Questionstion: What should Anita be instructed to monitor while taking furosemide for heart failure?
(a) Blood glucose levels
(b) Fluid intake and output
(c) Respiratory rate
(d) Heart rate
Answer:
(b) Fluid intake and output
Explanation:
Patients prescribed diuretics like furosemide should be instructed to monitor their fluid intake and output and to report any significant changes to their healthcare provider. This is because diuretics can cause dehydration and electrolyte imbalances, which can worsen heart failure symptoms.
Monitoring fluid intake and output can help patients and their healthcare providers adjust the medication dosage as needed. Blood glucose levels, respiratory rate, and heart rate are not directly related to the management of heart failure with furosemide.
Question 30.
Patients prescribed proton pump inhibitors should be counseled on:
(a) The importance of monitoring their fluid and electrolyte balance
(b) The possible side effects of the medication, such as drowsiness and constipation
(c) The possible side effects of the medication, such as stomach upset and diarrhea
(d) The importance of avoiding activities that require mental alertness
Answer:
(c) The possible side effects of the medication, such as stomach upset and diarrhea
Explanation:
Patients prescribed proton pump inhibitors should be counseled on the possible side effects of the medication, such as stomach upset and diarrhea, and how to manage them. Proton pump inhibitors reduce the production of stomach acid and can sometimes cause gastrointestinal side effects.
Monitoring fluid and electrolyte balance is not typically necessary for patients taking proton pump inhibitors. Drowsiness and constipation are side effects more commonly associated with opioids and benzodiazepines. Avoiding activities that require mental alertness is a precaution associated with opioids and benzodiazepines.
Question 31.
A patient with an acute allergic reaction is prescribed diphenhydramine. Which of the following activities must the patients know about the safety of the drug?
(a) The patient should not drive.
(b) The patient should not take water freQuestionntly.
(c) The patient should not have undergone any skin tests within a week of treatment.
(d) The patient should not take alcohol.
Answer:
(a) The patient should not drive.
(d) The patient should not take alcohol.
Explanation:
Diphenhydramine is an antihistamine. More accurately, it is a First Generation Antihistamine. The side effects of first-generation antihistamines are anticholinergic effects such as dry mouth, sedation, constipation, difficulty urinating, and loss of accommodation. To stop dry mouth, the patient may need to take water freQuestionntly.
Also, as one of the side effects is sedation the patient should not get involved in activities that demand high attention such as driving. The patients shouldn’t take alcohol too. As the drug already has an anticholinergic effect and can make you sleepy and sedate, alcohol can worsen this condition and take the patient into deep sedation. Antihistamines will affect the results of skin prick tests and need to be stopped before the testing is completed to get accurate results. If a patient is taking an oral antihistamine the medicine should be stopped a week (or at least 4 days) before his/her appointment.
Question 32.
Which of the following is true about the use of acetaminophen?
(a) It can cause Reye’s syndrome in a large dose.
(b) It should not be taken with milk or with food.
(c) It has a little anti-inflammatory effect.
(d) It has a little anti-rheumatic effect.
Answer:
(a) It can cause Reye’s syndrome in a large dose.
Explanation:
Reye's (Reye) syndrome is a rare but serious condition that causes swelling in the liver and brain. Aspirin is generally taken to cause Reye’s syndrome. It can be taken with milk/food to reduce GI irritation. We have to understand that acetaminophen has antipyretic and analgesic properties only. It cannot be used to treat inflammation or can be used for anti-rheumatic actions.
Question 33.
A nurse finds that one of the following activities of the patient is/are not the correct way for taking the tetracycline drug.
(a) She takes the medicine with a glass of lukewarm milk to eradicate the GI effects.
(b) She takes sunbath to tone up her skin during the treatment.
(c) She takes medicine only after 2 hours of use of other supplements.
(d) She reports freQuestionnt incidences of diarrhea to the healthcare provider.
Answer:
(a) She takes the medicine with a glass of lukewarm milk to eradicate the GI effects.
(b) She takes sunbath to tone up her skin during the treatment.
Explanation:
As we are asked incorrect options to choose from these (d) options. Option numbers (a) and (b) are the incorrect way of behaving for someone undergoing tetracycline drug therapy. Tetracycline can cause photosensitivity and can cause serious skin allergic reactions.
A good way to avoid this is avoiding walking under the sun or using sunscreen lotions or full-sleeve clothes. As tetracycline can form complexes with Magnesium, Aluminium, or Calcium related products, dairy products such as milk, supplements and antacids must be avoided.
Question 34.
Which of the following would a nurse advise a patient who is on metronidazole therapy for the treatment of giardiasis?
(a) Do not use aftershave lotion.
(b) Contact your healthcare provider immediately in you observe dark urine.
(c) Take only a moderate amount of alcohol.
(d) Contact your healthcare provider if you feel the metallic taste in your mouth.
Answer:
(b) Contact your healthcare provider immediately in you observe dark urine.
Explanation:
Remember, metronidazole is used to treat giardiasis as mentioned in the Questionstion along with other Gl-related disorders such as Amebiasis, colitis, etc. As a nursing consideration and advice, remember, you would advise patients not to use alcohol or any alcohol-containing products such as body sprays and aftershave lotions.
The patient should stop alcohol immediately 48 hours after treatment as it may cause disulfiram-like reactions. A disulfiram-like drug is a drug that causes an adverse reaction to alcohol leading to nausea, vomiting, flushing, dizziness, throbbing headache, chest and abdominal discomfort, and general hangover-like symptoms. The side effects of darkening of the urine or metallic taste in the mouth are normal. There is no need to panic but the nurse can inform them about these general side effects to the patient too.
Question 35.
Which of the following advice from the nurse is not correct for the patient taking cefotetan?
(a) Present before /Tell the doctor if there is any history of use of penicillin.
(b) Only take a moderate amount of alcohol when undergoing this treatment.
(c) There could be Anorexia, vomiting, diarrhea, etc. You can take medicine with food.
(d) You observe skin rash during the treatment. Severe allergic reactions should be reported.
Answer:
(a) Present before /Tell the doctor if there is any history of use of penicillin.
Explanation:
First of all, let’s the properties of the drug that we are dealing with. Cefotetan is a Cephalosporin class of drug. Please be cautious that like metronidazole, this drug too cannot sustain the reaction with alcohol as it can cause a severe disulfiram-like reaction. A disulfiram-like drug is a drug that causes an adverse reaction to alcohol leading to nausea, vomiting, flushing, dizziness, throbbing headache, chest and abdominal discomfort, and general hangover like symptoms.
A patient under cephalosporin therapy may encounter similar side effects to that of penicill in such as GI effects (vomiting, diarrhea, anorexia, etc. ) but can also suffer from allergic or hypersensitive reactions. Severe hypersensitive reactions must always be addressed properly. Allergic reactions such as rashes and pruritis are quite common. The GI discomfort can be relieved to some extent if the drug is taken with food. Also, concomitant use of other cephalosporin drugs and interaction with penicillin can affect
Question 36.
A patient is diagnosed with pneumonia infection. Which of the following actions are the most likely actions that a nurse or a health care worker would try to access before administrating the antibiotic ‘moxifloxacin’?
(a) See the blood profile for potassium level.
(b) See the BUN level.
(c) See the EKG QT interval before administration.
(d) Access the thyroid functions.
Answer:
(a) See the blood profile for potassium level.
(c) See the EKG QT interval before administration.
Explanation:
Moxifloxacin is a drug under the fluoroquinolone family. Moxifloxacin is contraindicated for patients with hypokalemia and patients with long QT intervals. Moxifloxacin can further prolongs the QTc interval by 11.5-19.5 ms. The rest of the options are incorrect.
Question 37.
A patient with a repeated history of Tonsilitis is prescribed erythromycin. The patient is already taking warfarin. Which of the following is important to access in the blood profile?
(a) See the warfarin level in the blood.
(b) See the EKG QTs interval.
(c) See the blood iron (hemoglobin) level in the blood.
(d) See the T3 and T4 levels.
Answer:
(b) See the EKG QTs interval.
Explanation:
Erythromycin is a macrolide class of antibiotics. This drug can affect the warfarin levels in the blood if a patient is also in warfarin therapy concurrently. So, the 1st option is the correct option here. The second option is also correct. Erythromycin can also increase the QT level and this can cause cardiac dysrhythmia. The other two options have no direct relation with erythromycin. These are just the options to confuse you.
Question 38.
A patient who is a stroke survivor has been prescribed warfarin sodium. Which of the following actions from a nurse is not the correct intervention?
(a) Note if the patient is taking any drug or any antibiotic concurrently
(b) Monitor PT and INR.
(c) Teach the patient importance of increasing/adopting green leafy vegetables in their diet.
(d) Tell patients to take good care of their oral health.
Answer:
(c) Teach the patient importance of increasing/adopting green leafy vegetables in their diet.
Explanation:
Green Leafy vegetables contain potassium. Potassium acts as an antidote to warfarin. So, increasing green leafy vegetables can affect the warfarin levels in the blood. Option (a) is correct so this is not the answer to this Questionstion. (We are looking for incorrect answers). PT stands for Prothrombin time and INR stands for International Normalized Ratio.
The concentration of these parameters is important to measure as PT/INR test helps diagnose the cause of bleeding or clotting disorders. It also checks to see if a medicine that prevents blood clots is working the way it should. The patient with warfarin has a bleeding tendency from gums. Information to take good care of oral health and brushing with soft- bristle brushes can be beneficial to patients.
Question 39.
A patient with high blood pressure is prescribed verapamil (80 mg t.i.d.). Which of the following activity could pose a serious risk to the patient?
(a) The patient is taking green leafy vegetables more.
(b) The patient has not yet quit smoking.
(c) The patient consumes wine and red meat regularly.
(d) The patient is taking a banana shake with grapefruit juice.
Answer:
(d) The patient is taking a banana shake with grapefruit juice.
Explanation:
Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker. Grapefruit juice interacts with some calcium channel blockers and increases the level of the medicine in the blood other options are just taken for your confusion.
Question 40.
A patient with acute angina is administered nitroglycerine sublingual tablets. Which of the following is not a correct nursing intervention to care for such patients?
(a) Ask the patient to carry the medicines with them every time.
(b) Ask the patient to abstain from alcoholic beverages.
(c) For angina pain do not give more than 3 tablets every 5- minute interval.
(d) Ask patients to drink plenty of water after swallowing the tablets.
Answer:
(d) Ask patients to drink plenty of water after swallowing the tablets.
Explanation:
Nitroglycerin comes as a sublingual tablet to take under the tongue. The tablets are usually taken as needed, so there could be a need at any time so the patient must be instructed to always carry the tablets with him/her. It is generally given 5 to 10 minutes before activities that may cause attacks of angina or at the first sign of an attack. Care should be taken so that no more than 3 tablets are given.
If the angina pain doesn’t subside, the health care worker must be called. The tablets can be given at 5 minutes intervals if the patient still complains the pain. Also, the patient must not take any alcoholic beverages. If he/she takes alcohol while under nitroglycerin therapy, it can cause a rapid heartbeat (tachycardia), sudden changes in blood pressure, dizziness, and fainting.
Question 41.
A patient who is currently under benzodiazepine for the treatment of insomnia has to know that:
(a) The patient should take the medication in the morning on an empty stomach.
(b) It is not safe for the patient to drive while the medication is on.
(c) The medicament may be coated for long drug release, it should not be broken or chewed before administration.
(d) He/She should be taking only a moderate amount of alcohol.
Answer:
(b) It is not safe for the patient to drive while the medication is on.
(c) The medicament may be coated for long drug release, it should not be broken or chewed before administration.
Explanation:
The patient is already feeling insomnia for which he may be feeling lethargy. Further, the medicine makes him fall sleepy, and drowsy because of which it is unsafe to do activities that require attention. It is also, for this reason, the medicine is administered before sleeping (at night) so option 1 is incorrect.
Option (c) is also correct as to prolong the release of the drug sometimes the drugs may have a special coating around them also called an enteric coating. When the pill is broken or chewed, this coating may be broken so the effect of the drug working for a long time is lost. Option (d) is also incorrect- The patient should abstain from taking alcohol as it further aggravates sedation.
Question 42.
Which of the following knowledge about the use of insulin for administration to the patient is not correct?
(a) We can combine humulin with short-acting insulin (lispro).
(b) The administration area must be massaged well for good distribution and ease of injection pain.
(c) The insulin-prefilled syringes must always be kept vertically down (with the needle pointing towards the ground) while storing.
(d) Short-acting insulins are given through the Subcutaneous route.
Answer:
(a) We can combine humulin with short-acting insulin (lispro).
Explanation:
NPH or Humulin can be mixed with short-acting insulins. While mixing care should be taken that short-acting insulins (lispro) should be drawn out before NPH as NPH is cloudy and may contaminate the mixture. Also, note that of all the insulin only NPH looks like the cloudy suspension insulin and should be shaken and mixed well within palms before administration.
The administration area is usually the abdomen but can be rotated but should never be massaged. The insulin syringe is generally kept in the refrigerator but should be kept vertically up. Also, note that short-acting insulin is only the insulin that can be given intravenously (not subcutaneously) so this option is also wrong.
Question 43.
Which of the following instruction given to the patient about the use of metformin is not correct?
(a) Avoid alcohol.
(b) Take folic acid as a supplement.
(c) Take vitamin B12 supplements or food rich in vitamin B12.
(d) If a dose is missed, add the previous dose and maintain the previous dose as prescribed/scheduled.
Answer:
The patient under metformin should avoid alcohol. Combining alcohol and metformin has risks. Drinking alcohol can make it more likely to develop lactic acidosis, a health complication that needs medical attention.
Question 44.
A patient explains his dietary habits for the treatment of gout. Which of the following regarding dietary habits during the use of probenecid is not necessary?
(a) The patient is taking the medicine with bread and milk as it helps to ease his GI discomfort.
(b) The patient is avoiding alcoholic products.
(c) The patient is taking foods rich in high protein.
(d) The patient is taking enough fluids and water.
Answer:
(c) The patient is taking foods rich in high protein.
Explanation:
Since high-protein foods tend to contain large quantities of purines, patients with gout are generally advised to avoid food sources of protein, including meat, seafood, soy, and legumes. Drinking too much alcohol may increase the amount of uric acid in the blood and lessen the effects of this medicine.
Option (a) is correct. The interaction with milk is not reported and taking medicine with food helps to ease the GI discomfort. To help manage gout, it's also important to stay hydrated by drinking plenty of water so option number (d) is also incorrect.
Question 45.
A patient with suicidal attempt history and under tri-cyclic antidepressants is seeking advice for the correct use of medication. Which of the following best advice for the caretaker of such patients?
(a) Administer the medicine at bedtime.
(b) Stop the medicine immediately if the patient complains of orthostatic hypotension.
(c) Gradually, give the patient free space as the patient’s depressive condition improves.
(d) Advise the patients on the importance of people and family.
Answer:
(a) Administer the medicine at bedtime.
Explanation:
The correct answer to this Questionstion is option (a). Tricyclic antidepressants are given at bedtime because it helps to avoid the side effects of sedation to patients. The patients under this therapy should not be driving or getting involved in things that need attention.
Option (b) is incorrect. Orthostatic hypotension is a common phenomenon or side effect of the drug. To avoid this avoid rising immediately and teach the patients to cope with orthostatic hypotension.
Option (c) is also wrong. Contrary to what the option answer suggests, we are given in the Questionstion that the patient has a history of suicidal attempts too. As the patient begins to feel better, the suicidal tendency increases instead of decreasing. Any abrupt mood change should be closely watched out for.
Option (d) is also wrong. We are searching for the best advice. Only advising people about the importance of family or making them feel good may not be the best option if other options exist.
Question 46.
A patient undergoing treatment with gentamycin should be aware that
(a) There could be some hearing disturbances that could be irreversible.
(b) The renal function tests must be done.
(c) Any hearing problem such as vertigo, hearing loss, tinnitus, etc should be reported to the health care provider.
(d) The patient must report any past incidences of kidney-related discomfort or disease.
Answer:
(a) There could be some hearing disturbances that could be irreversible.
(b) The renal function tests must be done.
(c) Any hearing problem such as vertigo, hearing loss, tinnitus, etc should be reported to the health care provider.
(d) The patient must report any past incidences of kidney-related discomfort or disease.
Explanation:
The most serious side effects of aminoglycosides like gentamycin are nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity. Nephrotoxicity means rapid deterioration in kidney function due to the toxic effect of medications and chemicals. Ototoxicity is when a person develops hearing or balance problems due to a medicine. Note that ototoxicity is irreversible where as nephrotoxicity is a reversible side effect.
To monitor the occurrence and extent of nephrotoxicity, renal function tests that involve monitoring of BUN and creatinine must be done. Also, as this is a nephrotoxic drug, this may affect the health of the kidney and this is more serious for kidney patients.
Question 47.
A patient who is taking ciprofloxacin asks for advice regarding the correct use of medication. Which of the following advice would be incorrect?
(a) Do not take Ciprofloxacin with milk and iron supplements.
(b) Do not take Ciprofloxacin and walk out in the sun.
(c) Discourage the use of Ciprofloxacin for old patients (> 60 years) and young children (<2 years).
(d) Patients with Myasthenia Gravis should take a complete dose of ciprofloxacin.
Answer:
(d) Patients with Myasthenia Gravis should take a complete dose of ciprofloxacin.
Explanation:
Ciprofloxacin is a fluoroquinolone. Drugs of this category (Ciprofloxacin, Ofloxacin, Gatifloxacin, Moxifloxacin, etc. should not be taken with iron supplements, milk products, or antacids as they can form complex compounds. As they are photosensitive care while walking in the sun should be taken.
Also, old and young people must not be prescribed fluoroquinolone as it can affect the tendons which are already weak in this population group. The last option is incorrect. People with myasthenia gravis must not take any fluoroquinolones. Fluoroquinolones are associated with negative implications for patients with myasthenia gravis because they disrupt neuromuscular transmission.
Question 48.
A patient was diagnosed with pulmonary tuberculosis. Which of the following activity of a patient under isoniazid treatment for latent tuberculosis needs rectification?
(a) The patient takes the pill after the meal.
(b) The patient takes vitamin B6 as a supplement.
(c) The patient abstains from taking alcohol.
(d) The patient is also taking other antitubercular drugs along with isoniazid.
Answer:
The habit that needs correction is taking the drug after a meal. Isoniazid must be taken on an empty stomach.
Explanation:
The (b) option is correct. Vitamin B6 helps to prevent the development of peripheral neuropathy.
The (c) option is also correct. The drug itself is hepatotoxic hence consumption of alcohol can aggravate the situation.
The (d) option is also correct. The drug is used in combination with other antitubercular drugs.
For mnemonics, please memorize STRIPE
- ST- Streptomycin
- R- Rifampin
- I- Isoniazid
- P- Pyrazinamide
- E- Ethambutol
Question 49.
A patient is prescribed morphine sulfate for the alleviation of the pain of surgery. Which of the following nursing consideration sounds justifiable for the care of such a patient?
(a) Do not give the medicament if the respiration rate is very low.
(b) It is a safer choice of pain management for people with renal dysfunction.
(c) It is a safer choice for pain management who encounter orthostatic hypertension.
(d) Atropine re verses the effect of morphine in case of toxic doses.
Answer:
(a) Do not give the medicament if the respiration rate is very low.
Explanation:
Morphine depresses the respiratory system hence if the respiratory rate is lesser than 12 per minute, it is safe not to give morphine. It is, for this reason, morphine is not usually administered to old people (>60 years) and younger children, and patients who have underlying respiratory disorders such as COPD and Asthma.
It is contraindicated for people with renal and hepatic disorders and may cause orthostatic hypertension. The antidote for Morphine is Naloxone not Digoxin.
Question 50.
A pregnant woman is administered oxytocin to induce term labor. The nurse immediately stops the infusion. All of the given conditions may be the true reasons for stopping oxytocin infusion except
(a) The uterine pressure is greater than 20 mm Hg.
(b) There is an alteration in fetal heart rhythm.
(c) The mother is complaining of intense pain.
(d) The contractions are occurring freQuestionntly (every 2 minutes).
Answer:
(a) The uterine pressure is greater than 20 mm Hg.
(b) There is an alteration in fetal heart rhythm.
(d) The contractions are occurring freQuestionntly (every 2 minutes).
Explanation:
Generally, the oxytocin infusion is stopped and a healthcare worker is called in the following scenario:
- FreQuestionnt contractions.
- Alteration in fetal heart rate.
- Increase in uterine pressure (more than 20mm Hg)
- Contractions are lasting longer (more than a minute)
Question 51.
A patient who is opioid tolerant is administered a Transdermal patch of Fentanyl to help alleviate pain. Which of the following instruction should be given to such patients is not correct?
(a) Avoid too much exercise.
(b) Keep the patch area warm with heating sources.
(c) This can cause dependency on long use.
(d) The patient may suffer from respiratory depression.
Answer:
(c) This can cause dependency on long use.
Explanation:
Option (b) is not correct and hence the answer to the Questionstion in this situation. The medicine from the patch may release fast on the administration of heat or any activity that raises the body temperature such as hard exercises so heat and hard physical exercises must be avoided. Option (c) is correct as there is dose-related dependence on long use. Option (d) is also correct. Fentanyl causes respiratory depression although slow-release devices such as patches are not very harmful. Note that respiratory depression can be reversed with naloxone.
Question 52.
The ECG of the patient shows signs of atrial fibrillation. The health care provider suggested treatment with digitalis to the patient. Which of the following is a nursing procedure to follow in this case?
(a) Monitor the pulse of the patient and serum level of digitalis
(b) Administer IV boluses to the patient.
(c) Watch out for any signs of toxicity.
(d) In case of a missed dose, give the double dose and maintain the normal dose as suggested afterward.
Answer:
(a) Monitor the pulse of the patient and serum level of digitalis
(c) Watch out for any signs of toxicity.
Explanation:
Digitalis is used to improve cardiac output and treat atrial fibrillation and atrial flutter. The IV infusion should be given slowly for over 5 minutes. One of the main adverse effects of digitalis is digitalis toxicity due to overdose. Warning signs of overdose are confusion, loss of appetite, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, or vision problems.
Other signs of toxicity or overdose are changes in the rate or rhythm of the heartbeat (becoming irregular or slow), palpitations (feeli ng of pounding in the chest), or fainting. The antidote used in such a case is digoxin immune Fab (Digibind). Digibind binds and inactivates digoxin. The dose must never be skipped or never doubled if there is a miss.
Question 53.
A woman with an altered triglyceride level is prescribed atorvastatin. Which of the following advice is the best advice for such a patient?
(a) Please refer to a healthcare worker if there is muscle pain and weakness.
(b) Please do not have plans to conceive a child (if she is of child-bearing age).
(c) Take medicine in the morning on empty stomach.
(d) Do not let to lose weight.
Answer:
(a) Please refer to a healthcare worker if there is muscle pain and weakness.
Explanation:
These classes of drugs help to lower the cholesterol level. It helps to decrease the LDL and increase the HDL level which is also called good cholesterol. The medicine is taken in the evening. A healthy diet and Exercise also help to maintain the level of triglycerides and reduce the LDL level so it must also be accompanied by the treatment. One of the side effects of antihyperlipidemic (Atorvastatin, Pravastatin, Simvastatin, etc.) is myopathy which is muscle weakness due to dysfunction of muscle fiber. It could be accompanied by symptoms such as muscle cramps, stiffness, and spasm.
The other side effect of serious cases is rhabdomyolysis. This is a serious medical condition that can be fatal or result in permanent disability. It occurs when damaged muscle tissue releases its proteins and electrolytes into the blood. These substances can damage the heart and kidneys and cause permanent disability or even death. The medicine affects the liver so any patient with liver dysfunction should take the drug with caution. It is for this reason, the liver function tests of such patient are monitored. Also, please note that this drug should be avoided by child-bearing mothers or pregnant women because it can harm the growing fetus.
Question 54.
The healthcare worker is preparing the patient for conscious sedation of the patient and gives a dose of benzodiazepine for the anesthetic procedure. Which of the following is not a correct nursing procedure to follow?
(a) Watch out for any cardiac or respiratory changes throughout the sedation period.
(b) Tell the patient about the surgical procedure in brief and pacify him to ease the fear after the operation.
(c) Monitor vital signs and BP.
(d) Watch out for the progress of sedation. If required give additional doses slowly after 2-3 minutes.
Answer:
(b) Tell the patient about the surgical procedure in brief and pacify him to ease the fear after the operation.
Explanation:
The sedation starts quite early within 1-2 minutes and even after the operation the patient won’t be able to recall anything said to him so there is no Questionstion of pacifying the patient and telling him how the procedure went. There could be abrupt respiratory changes, cardiac effects, etc. so monitoring the both cardiac and respiratory state of the patient is vital. The dose given to the patient may cause a cardiac or respiratory problem so the drug should be given slowly with monitoring and additional dosage must be given only after conscious observation of sedation for some minutes.
Question 55.
The ECG of a patient shows Atrioventricular Block (AV) Block. The health care worker prescribed Atropine. Which of the following actions is not a correct way of dealing with such a condition?
(a) Keep the patient hydrated by letting him sip fluids and water.
(b) Keep account of the number of urinary calls.
(c) Watch out for the history of BPH (Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia)
(d) Administer the next dose if tachycardia is not relieved.
Answer:
(c) Watch out for the history of BPH (Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia)
Explanation:
Atropine is used to increase the heart rate and hence can be used in bradycardia and AV blocks. Atropine further aggravates tachycardia. Hence option (d) is not the correct way of dealing with such a problem. However, there are some serious side effects and contraindications that we have to consider. Side effects of atropine include dry mouth, blurred vision, photophobia, tachycardia, flushed skin, constipation, difficulty with urination, inability to perspire appropriately, delirium, or coma. Option (a) and (b) are measures to keep off these side effects.
One of the side effects is bladder obstruction. Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is another name for prostate gland enlargement. It is a common condition as men get older. An enlarged prostate gland can cause uncomfortable urinary symptoms, such as blocking the flow of urine out of the bladder. The side effect of Atropine (difficulty in urination) makes this condition even worse.
Read More: